He affirmed on one occasion that he was “as touching the righteousness which is in the law, found blameless” (Philippians 3:6), and yet, at another time, he acknowledged that he was “chief ” of sinners (1 Timothy 1:15).
Is he blameless or not?
< No. In the former passage, Paul was describing the reputation he enjoyed among his Hebrew contemporaries as a Pharisee,
while in the latter verse, he expressed the anguish he felt at having been a persecutor of the Christian Way. How sad that some are almost totally ignorant of the principles that resolve Bible difficulties.
- http://www.ukapologetics.net/biblecontra.htm
< Being blameless and sinful are two different things.
[need details]
| < Prev | Next > |
|---|
No flaming.
No trolling.
No lewd or offensive content.
No swearing or crude language.
Moderators have the right to delete comments to keep the commenting section clean. However, we will try to not use this right as much as possible, so please feel free to comment while following the rules.
All comments on arguments, counter arguments, and views and opinions of the page are welcome, so long not offensive. You can express disagreement without being offensive.