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• John 8:14 "Though I bear record of myself, yet my record is true."

  vs.

• John 5:31 "If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true."

- http://www.ffrf.org/books/lfif/?t=contra

So is He? 

<  STRONG Newer translations for John 8:14 include "even if," thus, Jesus was saying he could bear witness of himself.

Newer versions such as the RSV, NASB, NIV, ESV, and NKVJ translate John 8:14 to include "even if". This newer translation changes the meaning of the verse. Instead of: "Though I bear record of myself, yet my record is true" (KJV), Jesus says: "Even if I do bear witness to myself, my testimony is true" (RSV). Jesus does not say that he is, or will, bear witness of himself, but that he could.

Even if Jesus bears witness of himself, his witness is true because, as seen in the following verse, Jesus says "my decisions are right, because I am not alone. I stand with the Father, who sent me" (John 8:16). Because Jesus is with the Father, he is not alone, and so he really could bear witness of himself if he chose to.

-JM

>> Is there any proof that the Father bears witness of Jesus?

We only know that the Father bears witness of Jesus because Jesus says He does.

< The Father bears witness to Jesus through his works, which is confirmed in scripture.

See the argument below on how works are evidence that the Father bears witness to Jesus. Further, scripture, which is from God, testifies to us about the Messiah (John 5:39). Scripture contains prophecies and signs concerning the Messiah, which Jesus fulfilled.

See this article for a detailed discussion on the signs the Messiah would perform: http://www.fallingwalls.com/Files/Traditions%20-%20Chapter%202.pdf

< STRONG No. Without his works, Jesus could not testify for himself because it is through works that the Father bears witness to him. Further, since he and the Father are one, his testimony is true.

In these verses, Jesus says that if he testifies of himself, his witness isn't true, BUT there is another who bears witness to him- God the Father:

"If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true. There is another that beareth witness of me; and I know that the witness which he witnesseth of me is true... But I receive not testimony from man: but these things I say, that ye might be saved." (John 5:31-34) [emphasis added]

So how do we know that the Father bears witness of Jesus? What's the evidence? In verse 36, we see that the works which the Father gives to him bear witness that the Father sent him (John 5:36). The works Jesus did include miracles, healings, driving out demons, and raising the dead. By these works we know Jesus came from the Father-- they bore witness of him. Therefore, Jesus, without the Father's testimony, or works, didn't have adequate proof that he was who he said he was.

Later, in chapter 8, Jesus speaks to the people telling them, "I am the light of the world. Whoever follows me will never walk in darkness, but will have the light of life" (8:12). So the Pharisees, undoubtedly surprised at Jesus' words, respond by telling him, "Thou bearest record of thyself; thy record is not true" (8:13). They were basically saying that he was alone in bearing witness to what he had just said and so his testimony couldn't be true.

Jesus answers the Pharisees by telling them that he was not alone- that he testifies for himself and his other witness is the Father (8:16-7). And even if Jesus were to testify for himself (see first argument for proper translation of John 8:14), since Jesus is God, his witness would be true for he knows from whence he came and whither he will go (8:14). 

These verses in John actually build on each other. Jesus starts by telling us that without his works his testimony would be untrue since it is the Father who gives him his works, as a testimony. Then, in response to a false allegation by the Pharisees, in which they say Jesus has no other witnesses, he tells them that he is not alone, that the Father bears witness to him, and that he could testify for himself since he and the Father are one (something they are ignorant of). Jesus establishes his authority and relationship to God.

-JM

>> Is there any proof that the Father bears witness of Jesus by works?

We only know that the Father bears witness of Jesus because Jesus says He does. (from another argument)

< Yes. Scripture, which is from God, testifies to this. 

Scripture, which is from God, testifies to us about the Messiah (John 5:39). Scripture contains prophecies and signs concerning the Messiah, which Jesus fulfilled.

See this article for a detailed discussion on the signs the Messiah would perform: http://www.fallingwalls.com/Files/Traditions%20-%20Chapter%202.pdf 

(from another argument)

>> The contradiction isn't resolved.

When Jesus bears witness of himself in chapter 8, is that witness true or not? If it is true, then he has contradicted himself; it is false, he has also contradicted himself.

- http://www.ebonmusings.org/atheism/biblecontra.html#witness

< Both of the statements that Jesus makes are true.

In reading the surrounding verses, we learn what Jesus was referring to when he made those statements in chapters 5 and 8. He said that by himself, without the Father's testimony (aka works), his testimony wouldn't be true.  He'd have no evidence to support his claims. However, because he and the Father are both God, he essentially testifies for himself- Jesus and the Father are one (John 10:30). Therefore, in the context of John 5:31, Jesus is talking about him testifying apart from his works, or God, and so still agrees with his statement in John 8:14. There isn't a contradiction once you examine the verses.

-JM

< STRONG Jesus says he alone can't bear witness of himself in order to agree with the Old Testament teachings. However, since he has the support of the Father, he isn't alone and thus can bear witness himself.

In order to understand these verses we must look at their context. Jesus is dependent on the Father in everything he does. He doesn't act alone; he has the Father's support:

"I can do nothing on My own initiative. As I hear, I judge; and My judgment is just, because I do not seek My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me...If I alone bear witness of Myself, My testimony is not true...There is another who bears witness of Me, and I know that the testimony which He bears of Me is true" (John 5:30-32). [emphasis added]

He says that his testimony isn't true (if given alone), agreeing with the established tradition that a single witness bearing testimony isn't enough. This is not because he is dishonest or untruthful, but because he is holding to an Old Testament teaching that says two witnesses are needed to condemn another or to establish a fact: "One witness shall not rise up against a man for any iniquity, or for any sin, in any sin that he sinneth: at the mouth of two witnesses, or at the mouth of three witnesses, shall the matter be established," (Deut 19:15). This is also seen in the New testament: "In the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established" (Matt 18:16).

Therefore, because two witnesses are needed, Jesus alone could not bear witness of himself. However, Jesus is not alone: "my decisions are right, because I am not alone. I stand with the Father, who sent me" (John 8:16). Jesus has the Father's continual support. Consequently, if Jesus bears witness of himself, his witness is backed by the Father and so his witness is true. (from another argument) 

-JM, http://carm.org/bible-difficulties/luke-john-acts/was-jesus-witness-himself-true-or-not

>> The contradiction isn't resolved.

When Jesus bears witness of himself in chapter 8, is that witness true or not? If it is true, then he has contradicted himself; it is false, he has also contradicted himself. (from another argument)

- http://www.ebonmusings.org/atheism/biblecontra.html#witness

< Both of the statements that Jesus makes are true.

In reading the surrounding verses, we learn what Jesus was referring to when he made those statements in chapters 5 and 8. He said that by himself, without the Father's testimony (aka works), his testimony wouldn't be true. He'd have no evidence to support his claims. However, because he and the Father are both God, he essentially testifies for himself- Jesus and the Father are one (John 10:30). Therefore, in the context of John 5:31, Jesus is talking about him testifying apart from his works, or God, and so still agrees with his statement in John 8:14. There isn't a contradiction once you examine the verses. For more on this understanding of the scripture, see the argument below. (from another argument)

-JM